BY30 Old Kisiel Exams
First Examination
1.
The basic functional unit in all living things is the:
a. cytoplasm d.
tissue
b. organelle e.
organ
c. cell
2.
One characteristic which is NOT considered unique to living systems is:
a. irritability d.
growth
b. metabolism e.
organic structure
c. reproduction
3.
The body's ability to maintain a constant internal environment is called:
a. homeopathy b.
epipathy
b. epistasis e.
reproduction
c. homeostasis
4.
Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning feedback mechanisms?
a. Positive feedback mechanisms always result in
excessive damage to the body.
b. Negative feedback mechanisms tend to increase
the original stimulus.
c. All homeostatic mechanisms work to prevent
sudden severe changes in the body.
d. Blood glucose levels and body temperature are
regulated by positive and negative feedback mechanisms.
e. All of the above,
5.
Oxidation-reduction reactions:
a. involve the loss and gain of electrons d. "a" and
"b" of the above
b. involve the loss and gain of energy e. all of the above
c. require oxygen
6.
An exothermic (exergonic) chemical reaction:
a. converts molecules of more energy into molecules
with less energy
b. releases energy as the reaction proceeds
c. requires the input of energy
d. "a" and "b" of the above
e. "a" and "c" of the above
7.
Transfer of electrons are demonstrated by what kind of bonds?
a. covalent d.
all of the above
b. hydrogen e.
none of the above
c. ionic
8.
Two adjacent water molecules are held together by:
a. hydrogen bonds d.
covalent bonds
b. electronic bonds e.
ATP
c. ionic bonds
9.
Atoms which have lost or gained electrons become charged particles called:
a. alpha particles d.
ions
b. beta particles e.
electronics
c. neutrinos
10.
Compounds are formed when:
a. one atom appropriates all the outer electrons of
another atom
b. two atoms collide with sufficient force
c. atoms interact so as to complete their outermost
electron shells
d. two atoms of the same element combine
e. equilibrium is reached
11.
H2O represents a(n):
a. molecule d.
stable structure
b. inorganic substance e. all of the
above
c. compound
12.
Which of these functions is NOT associated with water?
a. a solvent for various chemicals d. a
lubricant
b. a suspending medium e. a dilution medium
c. an immediate source of energy
13.
A neutral solution would have a pH of:
a. 3 d.
9
b. 5 e.
11
c. 7
14.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE about a solution that has a pH
of 5?
a. It has ten times the concentration of H+
ions of a solution of pH6.
b. It has more
c. It has more H+ ions than
d. "a" and "c" are true.
e. None of the statements are true.
15.
A substance which tends to minimize the fluctuations in the hydrogen ion
concentration within a cell is called a (n):
a. acid d.
amino acid
b. salt e.
catalyst
c. buffer
16.
When two atoms share one pair pf electrons, the bond is called a:
a. ionic bond d.
covalent bond
b. radical bond e.
bail bond
c. hydrogen bond
17.
Carbohydrates, proteins and lipids are synthesized from their basic building
units by the:
a. addition of a water molecule d.
removal of a water molecule
b. removal of a carbon atom e. addition of a carbon
atom
c. addition of a hydrogen atom
18.
The process of hydrolytic cleavage is directly OPPOSITE to:
a. excretion d.
secretion
b. absorption e.
none of the above
c. synthesis
19.
In general, the ending "-OSE" designates a compound as a:
a. acid d.
fat
b. sugar e.
enzyme
c. protein
20.
Under ordinary circumstances the MOST readily available source of body energy
is:
a. carbohydrates d.
minerals
b. proteins e.
vitamins
c. fats
21.
Glucose and fructose, having the SAME molecular formula but DIFFERENT physical
structures, are called:
a. isomers d.
polysaccharides
b. isotopes e.
starches
c. polymers
22.
Which one of the following is NOT a monosaccharide?
a. glucose d.
ribose
b. fructose e.
sucrose
c. galactose
23.
When monosaccharide subunits join together they do so by the mechanism of:
a. denaturation d.
dehydration synthesis
b. hydrolysis e.
respiration
c. neutralization
24.
The energy content, measured in kilocalories per gram, is HIGHEST in:
a. fats d.
nucleic acids
b. carbohydrate e.
all of the above have the same energy content
c. protein
25.
When a fat is synthesized?
a. fatty acids combine together d. glycerol combines with a
simple sugar
b. simple sugars combine together e. amino acids combine to form
large molecules
c. fatty acids combine with glycerol
26.
Breakdown of products of fats include:
a. amino acids and glycerol d. amino acids and fatty acids
b. fatty acids and glycerol e. all of the above
c. glycerol and six-carbon sugars
28.
Protein molecules typically consist of:
a. amino acids linked together d. sugar, phosphates and
organic bases
b. glycogen and fatty acids linked together e. "sugar and spice, and everything
nice"
c. carbon, hydrogen and oxygen
29.
Peptide bonds are found in:
a. proteins d.
lipids
b. carbohydrates e.
all of the above
c. nucleic acids
30.
Proteins that are produced by living cells to catalyze or speed up many of the
reactions
in the body are:
a. nucleic acids d.
lipids
b enzymes e.
purines
c. polysaccharides
31.
Enzymes are organic catalysts which:
a. alter the direction in which a chemical
reaction proceeds
b. determine the nature of the products of a
reaction
c. increase the speed of a chemical reaction
d. are essential raw materials for a chemical
reaction that are converted into some of its products
e. all of the above.
32.
Nucleic acids are:
a. found only in the cytoplasm d. made
up of nucleotides
b. chains of amino acids e. present only in
animal cells
c. found only in the nucleus
33.
A nucleotide consists of which of the following?
a. nitrogenous base d.
all of the above
b. pentose sugar e.
none of the above
c. phosphate group
34.
Ribose sugar is a component of:
a. DNA d.
testosterone
b. glucose e.
wax
c. RNA
35.
Cells which do NOT contain a nucleus enclosed by a membrane are:
a. eukaryotic d.
protista
b. karyotic e.
all of the above
c. prokaryotic
36.
Cell membranes:
a. may have pores
b. contain carrier molecules
c. are composed of two outer lipid layers and an
inner protein layer
d. "a" and "b" of the above
e. all of the above
37.
Cell membranes:
a. are composed primarily of lipids and
carbohydrates
b. are so small that they cannot be seen with an
electron microscope
c. play a major role in determining the chemical
composition of the intracellular compartment
d. are normally very permeable to charged
particles
e. all of the above
38.
Which of the following is NOT a factor which determines whether molecules would
permeate a cell membrane?
a. lipid solubility d.
particle size
b. protein solubility e. filtration
pressure
c. transport (carrier) molecules
39.
The endoplasmic reticulum:
a. is found in abundance in cells which secrete
proteins
b. is the site of most ATP synthesis
c. may have ribosomes attached to its surface
d. "a" and "c" of the above
e. all of the above
40.
Where can ribosomes sometimes be located?
a. in the Golgi bodies d. on the
chromosomes
b. on the endoplasmic reticulum e. within lysosomes
c. in the mitochondria
41.
The organelle associated with the synthesis of proteins is the:
a. ribosome d.
lysosome
b. mitochondrion e.
centriole
c. microtubules
42.
The fluid that accumulates in spaces BETWEEN body cells and bathes them is
called:
a. blood d.
interstitial fluid
b. intracellular fluid e. lymph
c. plasma
43.
Which of the following substance are found in LOW concentrations
within
the cellular cytoplasm?
a. Na+ d.
K+
b. glucose e.
"a" and "b" of the above
c. amino acids
44.
Which of the following organelles "packages" substances synthesized
by the cell?
a. Golgi bodies d.
ribosomes
b. mitochondria e.
nucleolus
c. lysosomes
45.
Organelles containing powerful hydrolytic enzymes within their membrane
barriers are:
a. ribosomes d.
Golgi bodies
b. lysosomes e.
centrioles
c. mitochondria
46.
The function of the mitochondria is principally related to:
a. reproduction d.
circulation
b. excretion e.
protein synthesis
c. energy production
47.
Cells change shape and move by amoeboid movement because of the contraction of:
a. microtubules d.
microfilaments
b. mitochondria e. "a" and "d"
of the above
c. ribosomes
48.
The centrioles function in:
a. cell division d.
cellular secretions
b. energy production e. none of the
above
c. nutrition
49.
DNA is concentrated in the:
a. cell membrane d.
ribosomes
b. nucleolus e.
centrosome
c. chromatin
50.
The nucleoli:
a. are present only during cell division
b. may be storage chambers for RNA
c. contain the genes during periods between division
d. are present in plant cells, but not in animal
cells
e. release potent digestive enzymes
Second Examination
Section 2399 –
1.
Brownian movement is:
a. directional in nature
b. the spontaneous movement of tiny particles
suspended in solution
c. the movement of water molecules which is visible
under the microscope
d. the movement caused by random haphazard molecular
collisions
e. "b" and "d" of the above
2.
Diffusion is primarily the movement of:
a. water d.
starch
b. particles e.
lipid
c. proteins
3.
Glucose usually enters a cell by:
a. diffusion through a pore d. osmosis
b. dissolution e.
none of the above
c. facilitated diffusion
4.
OSMOSIS:
a. is a process involving the
movement of particles suspended in water
b. tends to equalize the concentration of
particles by a movement of water molecules
c. is the movement of water molecules from a
region of low water concentration into a region of higher water concentration
d. continues until the solution on one side of a
membrane is hypertonic to the solution on the other side
e. requires ATP and carrier molecules
5.
Based on your understanding of osmosis, what would happen to the cells of the
body
if
a large amount of water was injected into the blood?
a. Water would move into the cells.
b. Osmotic pressure would cause the cells to swell.
c. Water will move from the blood in an attempt to
reach equilibrium.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above.
6.
If human blood cells are seen to shrink (decrease in volume) when placed into
a
NaCl solution of unknown concentration, the unknown solution must be?
a. hypertonic d.
physiological saline
b. isotomic e.
none of the above
c. hypotonic
7.
The passage of a liquid through a membrane resulting from HIGHER pressure
on
one side of the membrane is:
a. diffusion d.
filtration
b. active transport e.
phagocytosis
c. pinocytosis
8.
Active transport:
a. involves the net movement of molecules from a low
concentration to a high concentration
b. involves the net movement of molecules from a
high concentration to a low concentration
c. requires no energy
d. results in molecular movement in keeping with the
concentration gradient
e. occurs only in nonliving systems
9.
If a substance is moving against a concentration gradient, which of the
following
processes
might be applicable?
a. osmosis d.
facilitated diffusion
b. diffusion e.
"c" and "d" of the above
c. active transport
10.
Which of the following is NOT an active transport process that cells perform?
a. phagocytosis d.
endocytosis
b. osmosis e.
vesiculation
c. pinocytosis
11.
Phagocytosis is:
a. a rare disease of the blood
b. the process by which the cell engulfs food
particles
c. occurs only in plants
d. involves intake of inorganic material by
diffusion
e. a specialized form of diffusion
12.
The release of droplets of mucus by specialized cells in the digestive tract is
an example of:
a. endocytosis d. pinocytosis
b. phagocytosis e.
passive transport
c. exocytosis
13.
In what ways does the interior surface of the membrane of a non-conducting
neuron
differ
from the external surface?
a. negatively charged and contains less sodium
b. positively charged and contains less sodium
c. negatively charged and contains more sodium
d. positively charged and contains more sodium
e. none of the above
14.
Active transport in conducting membranes is:
a. responsible for the movement of water
b. required to move K+ out of the cell
c. functional with the aid of the proper enzymes and
energy use
d. responsible for Na+ removal to the
interstitial fluid
e. "c" and "d" of the above.
15.
Which structures are made up entirely of DNA?
a. cells d.
gametes
b. chromosomes e.
macromolecules
c. ribosomes
16.
The genetic code has which of the following characteristics:
a. each amino acid in a protein is coded by a
sequence of 3 nucleotides in DNA
b. the language of the genetic code is composed
of sequences of 3 bases formed from among 4 different possible bases
c. a mutation is produced by altering the
sequence of bases in DNA
d. all species of animals and plants appear to
use the same code words for amino acids
e. all of the above
17.
The process by which DNA makes an exact copy of itself is:
a. transcription d.
translation
b. replication e.
mutation
c. transduction
18.
When DNA unwinds during REPLICATION, the nitrogen base adenine pairs off
with
which of the following nitrogen bases?
a. quanine d.
cytosine
b. thymine e.
all of the above
c. uracil
19.
The synthesis of RNA is known as:
a. transduction d.
transference
b. translation e.
replication
c. transcription
20.
One messenger-RNA molecule codes for:
a. one amino acid d.
one entire protein
b. three amino acids e. none of the
above
c. one polypepteide
21.
The number of nucleotide bases that make up a codon is:
a. 2 d. 20
b. 3 e.
64
c. 4
22.
Which of the following serves as a template or mold for the formation of a
protein?
a. tRNA d.
tDNA
b. mDNA e.
rRNA
c. mRNA
23.
Transfer RNA:
a. carries the message to the cytoplasm for protein
coding from the nucleus
b. is manufactured as a template of DNA
c. picks up specific amino acids from the cytoplasm
and carries them to messenger RNA
d. is found mostly in the nucleus
e. attaches itself to DNA
24.
Of the following tRNA anti-codons and amino acids pairs, which on is obviously
INCORRECT?
a. ATT-glycine d.
UUU-phenylalanine
b. GCG-arginine e.
CGA-alanine
c. ACU-threonine
25.
Amino acids are placed into the proper orderly sequence within a protein molecule
as a result of:
a. the proper sequence of codon triplets on the
messenger RNA and the orderly arrangement of amino acids by transfer RNA
b. random distribution of nucleotides on the
messenger RNA
c. the information gathered by the messenger RNA
when it attaches to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm
d. peptide bond formation through the action of
DNA polymerase
e. the energy of activation released by
ribosomal ATP
26.
During which of the following stages does DNA in the nucleus appear as
glandular masses of chromatin?
a. metaphase d.
telophase
b. anaphase e.
prophase
c. interphase
27.
During which phase of mitosis do chromatids separate?
a. anaphase d.
telophase
b. interphase e.
prophase
c. metaphase
28.
During which stage of mitosis does the division of the cytoplasm occur?
a. interphase d.
anaphase
b. prophase e.
telophase
c. metaphase
29.
Which word includes ALL of the others?
a. catabolic reactions d. synthesis
reactions
b. anabolic reactions e. breakdown
reactions
c. metabolic reactions
30.
The release of energy from an organic molecule is brought about by the:
a. recombination of molecules d.
breaking of covalent bonds
b. addition of hydrogen e. synthesis of
glucose
c. release of water
31.
The original source of energy for most life on earth is:
a. ATP d.
chlorophyll
b. glucose e.
none of the above
c. sunlight
32.
The energy-storing compound in the cells of the body is:
a. ADP d.
DNA
b. FAD e.
NAD
c. ATP
33.
The bonding of a substance with a phosphate group is termed:
a. glycolysis d.
photosynthesis
b. fermentation e.
phosphorylation
c. chemosynthesis
34.
ATP is required for:
a. muscle contraction d. protein
synthesis
b. active transport systems e. all of the above
c. the energy of activation needed by cellular
respiration
35. In the complete aerobic breakdown of one glucose molecule, what is the MAXIMUM total of ATP molecules that can be produced by humans?
a. 2 d.
38
b. 34 e.
40
c. 36
36.
Aerobic respiration has as its end product(s):
a. alcohol d.
"b" and "c" of the above
b. C02 e.
all of the above
c. H20
37.
The breakdown of glucose to pyruvic acid is termed:
a. glycolysis d.
photolysis
b. oxidation e.
the Krebs cycle
c. photosynthesis
38.
Glycolysis:
a. can occur aerobically d. "b" and
"c" of the above
b. can occur anaerobically e. all of the above
c. yields a net of 2 ATP molecules
39.
The cleaving of 6-carbon sugars in the process of glycolysis results in the
formation
of
two 3-carbon molecules of the key intermediate compound known as:
a. lactic acid d.
phosphoric acid
b. acetic acid e.
pyruvic acid
c. Co-enzyme A
40.
Lactic acid is produced:
a. during aerobic respiration d. as the
end-product of the Krebs cycle
b. because of a lack of oxygen e. in the
mitochondria
c. when pyruvic acid donates two electrons
41.
How many molecules of ATP are produced during the anaerobic breakdown of one
glucose
molecule during fermentation?
a. 2 d.
38
b. 34 e.
40
c. 36
42.
Which of the following occurs when pyruvic acid enters the Krebs cycle via
pyruvic acid oxidation?
a. CO2 is released d.
oxygen is needed
b. coenzyme A is added e. none of the above
c. hydrogen is passed to NAD
43.
The Krebs cycle takes place in the:
a. mitochondria d.
nucleus
b. endoplasmic reticulum e. none of the above
c. Golgi complex
44.
Which statement is NOT true of the Krebs cycle:
a. completely oxidizes carbon d.
produces NAD-2H
b. depends on catalysts of several different enzymes
e. takes place in the mitochondria
c. produces large amounts of ATP
45.
Which of the following are energy-rich compounds?
a. ADP d.
NAD.2H
b. ATP e.
"b" and "d" of the above
c. NAD
46.
A major event in the electron transport system is:
a. high production of ATP molecules
b. splitting of H2O to release oxygen
c. formation of lactic acid
d. release of many CO2 molecules
e. all of the above
47.
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
a. oxidation-reduction reactions are always
coupled
b. the reducing agent in one reaction will
always function as the reducing agent in other reactions
c. oxygen does not necessarily participate in
the oxidation reaction
d. oxygen may act as the final electron acceptor
in chain of oxidation-reduction reactions
e. oxidation-reduction reactions always involve
electron transfer
48.
For every NAD.2H that enters the electron-transport series, the number of ATP's
produced is:
a. 2 d.
6
b. 3 e.
none of the above
c. 4
49.
In the complete aerobic breakdown of glucose molecules, the hydrogen atoms
ULTIMATELY
end up in:
a. acetyl-coenzyme A d. water
b. pyruvic acid e.
carbon dioxide
c. citric acid
50.
EXCESSIVE amounts of glycogen can be handled in the body by using it for:
a. fat synthesis d.
amino acid synthesis
b. protein synthesis e. nucleotide
synthesis
c. nucleic acid synthesis
Third Examination
Section 2399
–
1.
A group of cells operating to form a particular function is called a (n);
a. organ d.
organ system
b. system e.
none of the above
c. tissue
2.
Epithelial tissue:
a. lines the body cavities d. forms tendons and
ligaments
b. contains intercellular material e. "a"
and "c" of the above
c. may be one or several layers in thickness
3.
A type of epithelium which is SIMILAR in appearance to stratified squamous and
lines the urinary bladder is:
a. reticular d.
endothelium
b. transitional e.
cuboidal
c. adipose
4.
The functions of support, protection, insulation and energy storage are MOST
closely related to which tissue?
a. cartilage d.
areolar
b. bone e.
epithelial
c. adipose
5.
Which of the following is TRUE of both osteocytes and chondrocytes?
a. They are located in cavities called lacunae. d. They are found in the
trachea.
b. They produce a hard matrix. e. All of
the above
c. They are metabolically very active.
6.
The muscles that are directly involved in kicking a football are:
a. smooth muscles d.
all of the above
b. striated muscles e.
none of the above
c. cardiac muscles
7.
A example of the longest human cell is the:
a. fibroblast d.
neuron
b. osteoblast e.
sarcomere
c. erythrocyte
8.
When you study the integumentary system, you are studying the:
a. bones and joints d.
lymphatic tissues
b. mucous membranes e.
visceral organs
c. skin and related structures
9.
In addition to protecting and regulating temperature, the skin also:
a. synthesizes vitamin B d. "a" and
"c" of the above
b. absorbs lipid substances e. all of the above
c. receives sensory signals from the environment
10.
The stratum corneum:
a. is composed of dead cells d. all of the above
b. contains capillary beds e. none of the above
c. secretes oil moisturizers
11.
Which one of the following layers is NOT found in skin throughout the body?
a. stratum lucidum d.
papillary layer
b. reticular layer e.
stratum germinativum
c. stratum corneum
12.
Sweat glands act in:
a. sensory reception d.
"b" and "c" of the above
b. heat regulation e.
all of the above
c. removal of excess water
13.
Which one of the following is NOT true of the dermis?
a. Its outer portion is called the reticular layer.
b. It contains elastic, reticular, and collagen
fibers.
c. It contains specialized glands.
d. It contains specialized sense organs.
e. Its papillary region directly connects to the
epidermis.
14.
UNDER the dermal layer of the skin is located the:
a. subcutaneous layer d. hormonal layer
b. epidermal layer e. papillary layer
c. cristae
15.
Which of the following is NOT a function of bone?
a. support d.
protection
b. cartilage production e. structural
design
c. red cell production
16.
A bone that has essentially the same width, length, and height is most likely
a(n):
a. long bone d.
irregular bone
b. short bone e.
sesamoid bone
c. flat bone
17.
Periosteum is an example of which of the following membranes?
a. serous d.
fibrous
b. mucous e. cutaneous
c. synovial
18.
Which of the following is NOT found in an Haversian system of osteons?
a. canaliculus d.
osteocyte
b. periosteum e.
lacuna
c. blood vessel
19.
Cancellous bone is characterized by:
a. osteons d.
"a" and "b" of the above
b. central (Haversian) canals e.
"b" and "c" of the above
c. trabeculae
20.
Red bone marrow would be founds in the adult:
a. under the periosteum d. at the diaphyseal
region
b. at the epiphysial region e. around the
endochondrium
c. within the marrow cavity
21.
The small chambers in compact bone that contain the living bone cells are the:
a. lacunae d.
cellules
b. lamellae e.
none of the above
c. canaliculi
22.
Volkmann's or perforating canals contain:
a. osteoclasts d.
tendons
b. nerves e.
blood vessels
c. osteoblasts
23. Cells that form bone but have lost the ability to unde