BY 32 – SPRING 2000

Section 6143

 

EXAM 1

 

 

NAME ___________________________________

 

Instructions:  Record your answers directly on this sheet by circling the correct response.  For each question, choose the single best response.

 

 

1.  In reference to homeostasis, the presence of regulatory mechanisms provide for stabile conditions within: (C)

a.      the lumen (i.e. internal space) of organs of the GI tract.

b.     airways of the respiratory system.

c.      extracellular fluids.

d.     all of the above.

 

2.  Blood pressure is one example of a physiological variable that is subject to negative feedback control.  In this negative feedback loop, cardiovascular centers in the brainstem  represent which of the following components? (C)

a.      The physiological variable

b.     The sensor

c.      The feedback controller

d.     The effector

 

3.  In a positive feedback system, the effectors cause changes in the physiological variable which: (A)

a.      reinforce the initial disturbance.

b.     oppose the initial disturbance.

c.      cause the variable to return to its set-point.

d.     both b and c.

 

4.  Of the various types of intercellular communication, which of the following allow for the direct passage of a regulatory molecule from one cell to the next? (A)

a.      gap junctions

b.     the endocrine system

c.      the nervous system.

d.     all of the above

 

5.  Besides thyroid hormones, which of the following interacts with receptors located in the nucleus of target cells? (D)

a.      The parathyroid hormone

b.     The catecholamines

c.      The anterior pituitary hormones

d.     Aldosterone

 

6.  Following receptor activation by the hormone ADH (antidiuretic hormone), the enzyme that is responsible for cleaving PIP2 into IP3 (inositol triphosphate) and DAG (diacylglycerol) is called: (C)

a.      protein kinase A.

b.     adenylate cyclase.

c.      phospholipase C.

d.     protein kinase C.

 

7.  ADH secretion will increase in response to which of the following conditions? (A)

a.      A fall in blood pressure

b.     Drinking several alcoholic beverages

c.      Drinking several glasses of water

d.     An increase in blood volume

 

8.  The two non-trophic hormones released from the anterior pituitary gland are prolactin and: (D)

a.      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH).

b.     Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH).

c.      Adrenocorticotropin hormone (ACTH).

d.     Growth hormone (GH).

 

9.  The growth promoting effects of growth hormone are mediated by insulin-like growth factors also known as: (B)

a.      somatostatins.

b.     somatomedins.

c.      somatotropins.

d.     prolactin.

 

10.  Follicular cells of the thyroid gland increase production of thyroid hormones in response to increased: (A)

a.      thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH).

b.     thyroid inhibiting hormone (TIH).

c.      increased T3 and T4 in blood.

d.     all of the above.

 

11.  Hyposecretion of the adrenal cortex involving both aldosterone and cortisol is called: (B)

a.      Grave’s disease.

b.     Addison’s disease.

c.      Aldosteronism.

d.     Diabetes insipidus

 

12.  Insulin is released: (C)

a.      from a (alpha) cells of the pancreas.

b.     in response to a fall in blood glucose.

c.      in response to an increase in blood glucose.

d.     in response to insulin releasing hormone.

 

13.  Target cells for calcitonin are found in: (D)

a.      the kidney.

b.     the GI tract

c.      the pituitary

d.     in bone.

 

14.  The accessory GI organ that stores bile is called: (B)

a.      the pancreas.

b.     the gallbladder.

c.      the parotid.

d.     the vermiform appendix.

 

15.  The process by which nutrient molecules are taken up from the GI tract lumen across the epithelium is called: (C)

a.      digestion.

b.     secretion.

c.      absorption.

d.     reabsorption.

 

16.  The structure through which blood vessels and nerves pass to and from peritoneal organs is called: (B)

a.      an adventitia.

b.     a mesentery.

c.      a peritoneum.

d.     the greater omentum.

 

17.  Sandwiched between the epithelium and muscularis mucosa is a layer called the: (C)

a.      submucosa.

b.     adventitia.

c.      lamina propria.

d.     serosa.

 

18.  The uvula is a structure that is attached to the: (D)

a.      lip.

b.     tongue.

c.      gums.

d.     soft palate.

19.  Which of the following best describes the histology of the lower 1/3 of the esophagus? (A)

a.      The epithelium is stratified squamous, and the muscularis externus is exclusively smooth muscle.

b.     The epithelium is simple columnar, and the muscularis externus is exclusively skeletal muscle.

c.      The epithelium is stratified squamous, and the muscularis externus is exclusively skeletal muscle.

d.     The epithelium is simple columnar, and the muscularis externus is exclusively smooth muscle.

 

20.  Which of the following structures disappears upon distension of the stomach? (D)

a.      The gastric pits

b.     The gastric glands

c.      The plicae circulares

d.     The rugae

 

21.  Parietal cells are most often found in the: (B)

a.      cardiac portion of the stomach.

b.     body of the stomach.

c.      pyloric region of the stomach.

d.     esophagus.

 

22.  At the termination of the small intestine is a smooth muscle sphincter called the: (B)

a.      pyloric sphincter.

b.     ileocecal valve.

c.      lower esophageal sphincter.

d.     internal anal sphincter.

 

23.  Throughout the small intestine, the intestinal glands are called: (D)

a.      Brunner’s glands.

b.     the submandibular glands.

c.      gastric glands.

d.     crypts.

 

24.  Within the large intestine, the longitudinal layer of the muscularis externa is organized into three longitudinal bands called: (C)

a.      haustra.

b.     epiploic appendages.

c.      teniae coli.

d.     the greater omentum.

 

25.  The duct of which of the following exocrine glands empties to the vestibule of the mouth? (A)

a.      The parotid

b.     The submandibular

c.      The sublingual

d.     The pancreas

 

26.  Which of the following exocrine glands contains the highest relative proportion of mucous acini? (C)

a.      The parotid

b.     The submandibular

c.      The sublingual

d.     The pancreas

 

27.  The process of chemical digestion begins in the mouth with the action of: (A)

a.      amylase.

b.     pepsin.

c.      gastrin.

d.     mucus.

 

28.  Compared to baseline secretion rates, maximum parasympathetic stimulation will cause amylase secretion into saliva to: (A)

a.      increase.

b.     remain unchanged.

c.      decrease.

 

29.  Striated duct cells modify the composition by adding bicarbonate and extracting which of the following ions? (B)

a.      Ca2+

b.     Na+

c.      K+

d.     Mg2+

 

30.  During the oral phase of swallowing, (A)

a.      the upper esophageal sphincter is closed.

b.     a peristaltic wave is generated in the esophagus.

c.      the lower esophageal sphincter is open.

d.     all of the above.

 

31.  During the esophageal phase of swallowing, (D)

a.      a peristaltic wave conducts along the esophagus.

b.     the upper esophageal sphincter is closed.

c.      the lower esophageal sphincter opens just before food enters the stomach.

d.     all of the above.

 

32.  Gastrin secretion is stimulated by: (B)

a.      histamine.

b.     caffeine.

c.      emotional trauma.

d.     excessive acidity (that is pH < 2).

33.  The hormone with the most potent inhibitory effect on gastric secretion is: (C)

a.      gastrin.

b.     CCK.

c.      secretin.

d.     gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP).

 

34.  The proteolytic enzymes of the pancreas are released into the duodenum in inactive form.  The first step in their activation involves: (C)

a.      the formation of chymopepsin in the presence of stomach acid.

b.     the formation of chymotrypsin from trypsin.

c.      the conversion of trypsinogen to trypsin by an enzyme called enterokinase.

d.     interaction with intrinsic factor.

 

35.  CCK is released from enteroendocrine cells of the small intestine in response to: (C)

a.      parasympathetic stimulation.

b.     acidic chyme in the duodenum.

c.      chyme containing amino acids and fatty acids in the duodenum.

d.     bicarbonate in the small intestine.

 

36.  CCK acts on the: (B)

a.      gallbladder causing it to relax.

b.     sphincter of Oddi causing it to relax.

c.      hepatocytes causing them to increase bicarbonate production.

d.     the pancreas to increase bicarbonate production.

 

37.  During the defecation reflex, (D)

a.      stretch receptors in the rectum activate sympathetic nerves.

b.     the internal anal sphincter contracts.

c.      the intra-abdominal pressure decreases.

d.     the final phase involves conscious relaxation of the external anal sphincter.

 

38.  Bile salts act to: (A)

a.      emulsify fats.

b.     break down lipids into fatty acids and glycerol.

c.      inhibit micelle formation.

d.     all of the above.

 

39.  Lactose intolerance involves a lack of: (B)

a.      lactose.

b.     lactase.

c.      glucose.

d.     amylase.

 

40.  Most water absorption takes place in the: (C)

a.      esophagus.

b.     stomach.

c.      small intestine.

d.     large intestine.