BY 32 – Fall 2000

Sections 6142/6143

EXAM 2

NAME ___________________________________

Instructions:  Record your answers directly on this sheet by circling the correct response.  For each question, choose the single best response.

1.  The process of oxidative phosphorylation takes place within which cellular organelle? (C)

a.      The nucleus

b.     The cytoplasm

c.      Mitochondria

d.     The plasma membrane

 

2.  The process by which air is moved into and out of the lungs is called: (B)

a.      internal respiration.

b.     pulmonary ventilation.

c.      diffusion.

d.     all of the above.

 

3.  The ability of the respiratory system to contribute to acid-base balance in the body is dependent on the action of which of the following enzymes? (D)

a.      Lysozyme

b.     Erythropoitin

c.      Surfactant

d.     Carbonic anhydrase

 

4.  The term “upper airways” is a group of airways that includes which of the following?  (D)

a.      Segmental bronchi

b.     Lobar bronchi

c.      The trachea

d.     The pharynx

 

5.  The superior, middle and inferior meati lie in the lateral wall of the nasal cavity beneath shelf-like projections called: (A)

a.      chonchae.

b.     alar cartilages.

c.      the internal nares.

d.     the nasal septum.

 

6.  During inspiration, air passes from the larynx directly to the: (C)

a.      nasopharynx.

b.     nasal cavity.

c.      trachea.

d.     primary bronchi.

 

7.  The trachea possesses all of the following EXCEPT: (D)

a.      an epithelium that is pseudostratified columnar.

b.     exocrine glands.

c.      cartilage.

d.     a muscularis externa.

 

8.  Within the bronchial tree, the surface layer of mucus is derived from the secretions of exocrine glands and: (D)

a.      type I pneumocytes.

b.     type II pneumocytes.

c.      alveolar macrophages.

d.     goblet cells.

 

9.  Within the respiratory portion of the respiratory system, the largest airway is called: (C)

a.      the trachea.

b.     a terminal bronchiole.

c.      a respiratory bronchiole.

d.     an alveolar duct.

 

10.  The single layer of mesothelial cells closely adherent to the outer surface of the lung forms a structure called: (B)

a.      an interalveolar septum.

b.     the visceral pleura.

c.      the parietal pleura.

d.     the mediastinum.

 

11.  With regard to the muscles of respiration, which of the following muscles raise and outwardly rotate the rib cage? (C)

a.      The abdominal diaphram

b.     The internal intercostal muscles

c.      The external intercostal muscles

d.     Both a and c

 

12.  The transmural pressure gradient across alveoli is equal to: (A)

a.      alveolar pressure minus intrapleural pressure.

b.     intrapleural pressure minus alveolar pressure.

c.      atmospheric pressure minus alveolar pressure.

d.     alveolar pressure minus atmospheric pressure.

 

13.  Under which of the following conditions will the magnitude of the transmural pressure gradient across alveoli increase? (C)

a.      A puncture wound in the chest wall resulting in a pneumothorax

b.     A change in the chest conditions so that intrapleural pressure becomes positive

c.      A change in the chest conditions so that intrapleural pressure becomes more negative.

d.     Both a and b

 

14.  At the end of a normal tidal expiration when the lung is at its functional residual capacity (FRC): (C)

a.      the intrapleural pressure is positive.

b.     the inward elastic recoil of the alveoli is less in magnitude than the outward elastic recoil of the chest wall.

c.      alveolar pressure is equal to atmospheric pressure.

d.     All of the above

 

15.  During the inspiration phase of normal breathing (i.e., without a respirator): (D)

a.      alveolar pressures exceed atmospheric pressure.

b.     alveolar pressures equal atmospheric pressure.

c.      the inward elastic recoil of alveoli continues to decrease.

d.     None of the above

 

16.  Pulmonary surfactant: (C)

a.      decreases lung compliance.

b.     is secreted by type I pneumocytes.

c.      reduces surface tension forces that arise at the air-liquid interface within alveoli.

d.     All of the above

 

17.  Which of the following conditions will result in an increase in airflow? (B)

a.      Exposure to cold air which will cause airway smooth muscle to contract

b.     Exposure of airway smooth muscle to epinephrine

c.      Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves supplying airways

d.     An increase in airways resistance to airflow

 

18.  A spirometer can measure all of the following lung volumes EXCEPT: (A)

a.      residual volume.

b.     tidal volume.

c.      inspiratory reserve volume.

d.     expiratory reserve volume.

 

19.  The volume of air in the lungs after a maximal inspiratory effort is called the: (B)

a.      functional residual capacity (FRC).

b.     total lung capacity (TLC).

c.      residual volume (RV).

d.     tidal volume (TV).

 

20.  The volume of air that enters and leaves the nose per minute is called the: (C)

a.      tidal volume.

b.     alveolar ventilation.

c.      minute volume.

d.     anatomic dead space.

 

21.  The partial pressure of oxygen in atmospheric air is equal to its fractional concentration (that is 21%) multiplied by: (A)

a.      atmospheric pressure.

b.     its solubility in water.

c.      its molecular weight.

d.     none of the above.

 

22.  Assuming no diffusion impairments, the PO2 of blood leaving pulmonary capillaries is approximately: (D)

a.      0 mm Hg.

b.     40 mm Hg.

c.      45 mm Hg.

d.     100 mm Hg.

 

23.  Which of the following gases is most soluble in water? (B)

a.      O2

b.     CO2

c.      N2

d.     All of the above are equally soluble in water.

 

24.  All of the following will increase O2 diffusion in the lung EXCEPT: (C)

a.      increasing the surface area for diffusion.

b.     increasing the partial pressure gradient between air and blood.

c.      increasing the thickness of the diffusion barrier.

d.     both a and b.

 

25. Most O2 is carried in blood: (B)

a.      physically dissolved.

b.     bound to hemoglobin.

c.      in the form of bicarbonate.

d.     in the form of carbamino compounds.

 

26.  Changing the relative saturation of a hemoglobin molecule with oxygen from 100% to 75% involves, on average, the release of: (A)

a.      1 O2 molecule.

b.     2 O2 molecules.

c.      3 O2 molecules.

d.     4 O2 molecules.

 

27.  Which of the following conditions will decrease the affinity of O2 and hemoglobin (hint: involves a shift in the oxy-hemoglobin curve to the right)? (C)

a.      An increase in pH

b.     A decrease in temperature

c.      An increase in PCO2

d.     A decrease in 2,3-DPG

 

28.  With regard to CO2 transport in blood, the conversion of CO2 to bicarbonate (HCO3-) takes place mostly in: (C)

a.      interstitial fluids of the body.

b.     plasma.

c.      red blood cells.

d.     alveolar air spaces.

 

29.  Within pulmonary capillaries, there is a net movement of: (A)

a.      bicarbonate into red blood cells and chloride ions out of red blood cells.

b.     bicarbonate out of red blood cells and chloride ions into red blood cells.

c.      bicarbonate and chloride ions into red blood cells.

d.     bicarbonate and chloride ions out of red blood cells.

 

30.  With regard to the control of breathing, perhaps the greatest influence on breathing rate is the PCO2 level which is sensed by sensory receptors called: (A)

a.      chemoreceptors.

b.     stretch receptors.

c.      irritant receptors.

d.     muscle receptors.

 

31.  The fluid phase of normal blood flowing through undamaged blood vessels is called: (A)

a.      plasma.

b.     serum.

c.      lymph.

d.     both a and c.

 

32.  After spinning a sample of whole blood in a centrifuge, the layer that will form at the bottom of the centrifuge tube consists of: (D)

a.      plasma.

b.     serum.

c.      platelets.

d.     red blood cells.

 

33.  The major intracellular protein found within red blood cells is: (B)

a.      2,3 – DPG.

b.     hemoglobin.

c.      carbonic andydrase.

d.     lysozyme.

 

34.  The process of erythropoiesis takes place within: (A)

a.      red bone marrow.

b.     the spleen.

c.      lymph nodes.

d.     the thymus.

 

35.  Which of the following factors will increase blood hematocrit? (B)

a.      A vitamin B12 deficiency

b.     Erthropoitin

c.      An iron deficiency

d.     None of the above

 

36.  Platelets are formed from cells called: (C)

a.      monocytes.

b.     macrophages.

c.      megakaryocytes.

d.     neutrophils.

 

37.    With regard to white blood cells, which of the following is considered to be a granulocyte? (D)

a.      Neutrophils

b.     Basophils

c.      Eosinophils

d.     All of the above

 

38.  The term hemostasis includes the processes involved with: (C)

a.      the formation of red blood cells.

b.     the formation of both red and white blood cells.

c.      vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, and clotting.

d.     white blood cells leaving blood vessels.

 

39.  The synthesis of clotting factors in the liver requires: (B)

a.      vitamin B12.

b.     vitamin K.

c.      erythropoitin.

d.     heparin.

                                                 

40.  People with type AB blood possess: (D)

a.      antibodies to the A antigen on the surface of RBCs.

b.     antibodies to the B antigen on the surface of RBCs.

c.      antibodies to both the A antigen and B antigen on the surface of RBCs.

d.     no antibodies to antigens on the surface of RBCs.

 

41.  The site where T cell formation takes place is the: (B)

a.      bone marrow.

b.     thymus.

c.      spleen.

d.     lymph nodes.

 

42.  The spleen is involved in which of the following processes? (D)

a.      The destruction of old red blood cells

b.     Monitoring lymph for the presence of pathogens

c.      Monitoring blood for the presence of pathogens

d.     Both a and c.

 

43.  Which of the following organs possesses both afferent and efferent lymphatic vessels? (C)

a.      The thymus

b.     The spleen

c.      Lymph nodes

d.     Tonsils

 

44.  Which of the following organs will undergo a gradual reduction in tissue mass as an individual increases in age beyond the time of puberty? (A)

a.      The thymus

b.     The spleen

c.      Lymph nodes

d.     Tonsils

 

45.  Should a pathogen penetrate the mucosal barrier, there are a number of non-specific resistance processes that include all of the following EXCEPT: (A)

a.      the action of T killer cells.

b.     the action of natural killer cells.

c.      the release of antimicrobial proteins such as interferons.

d.     inflammation.

 

46.  Neutrophils and macrophages engulf and digest a variety of pathogens in a process called: (C)

a.      chemotaxis.

b.     antigen presentation.

c.      phagocytosis.

d.     hemostasis.

 

47.  Most cells of the body are identified as “self” by cells of the immune system due to the presence of cell surface markers called: (D)

a.      interleukins.

b.     interferons.

c.      complement proteins.

d.     major histocompatability complex I.

 

48.  With regard to cell mediated immunity, the cell type which releases interleukin II is the: (B)

a.      antigen presenting cell.

b.     T helper cell.

c.      T killer cell.

d.     B cell.

 

49.  With regard to humerol immunity, the cell type responsible for the bulk of antibody secretion is the: (D)

a.      antigen presenting cell.

b.     T helper cell.

c.      B cell.

d.     plasma cell.

 

50.  The phenomena in which the immune response to a second exposure of a particular antigen is greater in magnitude than the response to the first exposure is referred to as: (A)

a.      immunological memory.

b.     chemotaxis.

c.      phagocytosis.

d.     emigration.